Let’s assume new money = $X at $2/share → new shares = $X / $2
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- Post-money valuation = $10M + previous value → but use pro-rata
- New shares issued at $2/share → implies price per share reflects ownership
- Instead: investor’s ownership before round: unknown, but new investment:
- But we lack new investment amount. Rethink.
- Alternative: if pre-money is $10M and existing shares are 10,000 at $3 → existing valuation = $30M → contradiction.
- Assume: investor owns shares at $3/share, total cap table pre-dilution includes her stake.
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